NO.1 An administrator has configured a dial-up IPsec VPN with one phase 2, extended authentication
(XAuth) and IKE mode
configuration. The administrator has also enabled the IKE real time debug.
diagnose debug application ike -1 diagnose debug enable
In which order is each step and phase displayed in the debug output each time a new dial-up user is
connecting to the VPN?
A. Phase 1; XAuth; IKE mode configuration; phase 2.
B. Phase 1; XAuth; phase 2, IKE mode configuration.
C. Phase 1; IKE mode configuration; phase 2; XAuth.
D. Phase 1; IKE mode configuration; XAuth; phase 2.
Answer: C

NO.2 A FortiGate device has the following LDAP configuration:
Based on the output, what FortiGate LDAP setting is configured incorrectly?
A. password.
B. cnid.
C. dn.
D. username.
Answer: D

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NSE 4 - FortiGate Network Security Professional

NSE 4 Description
The FortiGate NSE 4 - Security Professional designation recognizes a candidate’s ability to configure, install and monitor the FortiGate Unified Threat Management products in a customer’s network.

NSE 4 Program Requirements
Passing the NSE 4 exam at a Pearson Vue test center
FortiGate I and FortiGate II training is highly recommended to prepare you for the NSE 4 exam.
*FCNSA and FCNSP exams will remain available at Pearson Vue test centers worldwide until June 30, when the FCNSA and FCNSP will retire.
NSE 4 replaces earlier FCNSA+FCNSP certification. FCNSP certificates will qualify as NSE 4 for a limited time. FCNSP v4 certificates will be honored as NSE 4 through December 31, 2015. FCNSP v5 certificates will be honored a NSE 4 through December 31, 2016. If you hold an FCNSP certificate, you should renew your NSE 4 standing by taking the NSE 4 exam before your FCNSP certificate is expired.
Who Should Attempt the NSE 4
Post-sales and support personnel who want acknowledgement that they are a FortiGate Network Security Professional.

Certification
The NSE 4 certification is valid for 2 years. You can re-certify by taking the current NSE 4 exam at a Pearson Vue center.

Partners: https://partners.fortinet.com/FortiPartnerPortal/
Employees: https://www.myfortinet.com/

Partners and employees must access the FLC via the portals above to receive credit towards your standing with Fortinet.

If you are a customer, you can create an account using your company email address.

Public: https://gm1.geolearning.com/geonext/fortinet/login.geo

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Exam Code: SK0-004
Exam Name: CompTIA Server+
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Exam Code: CV0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam
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NO.1 A host server in a small business environment does not have virtual switching configured.
The NIC on aguestis configured with an IP address that is on a different subnet from thehost server.
Which of the followingwouldMOSTlikely happen in this case?
A. The guest would have access to all network resources.
B. The guest will have network access to the host server.
C. The guest would have network access to everything but the host.
D. The guest will not have network access to the host or network resources.
Answer: D

NO.2 Which of the following power plug types would MOST likely be found in a medical facility?
A. Twist lock
B. Tip/Ring
C. Speed lock
D. Tip/Ring/Sleeve
Answer: A

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Global CyberLympics is conceptualized and organized by EC-Council. The goal of the CyberLympics is to raise awareness towards increased education and ethics in information security. The mission of the Global CyberLympics is Unifying Global Cyber Defense through the Games. EC-Council’s Global CyberLympics, the world’s first ethical hacking championship will be held this September across six continents. The Global CyberLympics is endorsed by the U.N.‘s cybersecurity executing arm. The mission behind the games is to foster better cooperation and communication on cybersecurity issues among countries.

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Networking Professional Exam
Exam Description
This exam will test your ability to:

Pre Site and On Site Deployment Preparation
Physical Installation
Configuration
Validation
Troubleshooting
Exam ID DNDNS-200
Exam Type Proctored at Testing Center
Exam Duration 75 Minutes
Exam Length 90 Minutes (includes NDA and tutorial)
Number of Questions 60 Questions
Passing Score 700 (out of a possible 900)
Languages English
Learning Path The courses listed help you prepare for the exam:
Dell Networking Installation and Configuration.
Dell Networking Planning
Who should take this exam?
Candidates taking this exam will have experience in deploying and/or managing Dell Networking Hardware for a recommendation of one year, with additional industry experience of one to three years. They should also possess an understanding of configuration and troubleshooting of network technologies, and knowledge on Dell deployment process and tools. The MQC will be able to perform typical deployment and/or cutover and integration with little or no assistance.

Exam Details
This exam utilizes a multiple choice format. Students will be asked to use their knowledge to solve scenario based questions.

Objectives
Pre Site and On Site
Network deployment or cutover plans, equipment and infrastructure to support deployment or cutover configurations
9.00%
Physical Installation
Inventory, component placement, switch hardware and cabling, power-on procedure
14.00%
Configure
Firmware upgrade process
Configure control and management plane protocols, switch parameters.
Configure VLANs, Spanning Tree, basic dynamic routing, LACP, ACLs, static routing, and/or multicast, VLT/MLAG
Explain switch stacking concepts
40.00%
Validation
Using operational show commands and reachability tests.
Evaluate VLAN functionality, Spanning Tree protocol operation, routing protocols operation, CLI response, VLT/MLAG functionality and over all configuration
25.00%
Troubleshooting
Troubleshoot using standard network tools such as, operational ping, show commands, and reachability tests, device indicators    12.00%

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Exam Code: CWAP-402
Exam Name: Certified Wireless Analysis Professional
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NO.1 You are troubleshooting problems with DHCP in relation to lightweight APs. They vendor class
identifier (VCI) is not specified in the DHCP server. When you contact vendor support, they inform
you that it is not necessary.
When is this information true?
A. When the DHCP server is directly connected to the subnet
B. When only one AP exists on the subnet
C. When only one client option 43 value is required
D. When only one client option 60 value is required
Answer: C

CWAP-402 Review   CWAP-402 Trusted   
Explanation:
The DHCP server should be configured to provide the IP address information to the APs, but it may
also be required to pass information for option 43. Option 43 is a vendor information option and can
be used for any vendor purpose. The vendor class identifier
(VCI) (for example, "Cisco AP c3600") is used with option 60 to determine the appropriate
information to return with option 43.

NO.2 You view a protocol analyzer capture decode with the following protocol frames listed in the
following order (excluding the ACK frames): 1) 802.11 Probe Request and 802.11 Probe
Response 2) 802.11 Auth and another 802.11 Auth 2) 802.11 Assoc Req and 802.11
Assoc Rsp 4) EAPOL-Start 5) EAP Request and EAP Response 6) EAP Request and EAP
Response 7) EAP Request and EAP Response 8) EAP Request and EAP Response 9)
EAP Request and EAP Response 10) EAP Success 19) EAPOL-Key (4 frames in a row)
What are you seeing in the capture file?
A. Wi-Fi Protected Setup with PIN
B. WPA2-Personal authentication
C. WPA2-Enterprise authentication
D. 802.1X with Dynamic WEP
Answer: C

CWAP-402 Review   

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NO.1 An administrator needs to set up a space in the office where co-workers can relax. The
administrator sets up several TV's with interconnected gaming systems in the office. Which of the
following did the administrator set up?
A. CAN
B. MAN
C. LAN
D. WAN
Answer: A

NO.2 A technician has responded to a security issue with an employee's computer.
Which of the following basic forensic steps should be taken NEXT?
A. Verify thechain of custody
B. Initiate Data collection
C. Create the forensics report
D. Secure the area
Answer: D

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NO.1 A security administrator is tasked with increasing the availability of the storage networks while
enhancing the performance of existing applications. Which of the following technologies should the
administrator implement to meet these goals? (Select TWO).
A. Multipath
B. LUN masking
C. Snapshots
D. vSAN
E. Deduplication
F. Dynamic disk pools
Answer: A,F
Explanation:
We can use dynamic disk pools (DDP) to increase availability and improve performance compared to
traditional RAID. Multipathing also improves availability by creating multiple paths to the storage (in
case one path fails) and it improves the performance by aggregating the performance of the multiple
paths.
DDP dynamically distributes all data, spare capacity, and protection information across a pool of
drives.
Effectively, DDP is a new type of RAID level, built on RAID 6. It uses an intelligent algorithm to define
where each chunk of data should reside. In traditional RAID, drives are organized into arrays, and
logical drives are written across stripes on the physical drives in the array. Hot spares contain no data
until a drive fails, leaving that spare capacity stranded and without a purpose. In the event of a drive
failure, the data is recreated on the hot spare, significantly impacting the performance of all drives in
the array during the rebuild process.
With DDP, each logical drive's data and spare capacity is distributed across all drives in the pool, so all
drives contribute to the aggregate 10 of the logical drive, and the spare capacity is available to all
logical drives. In the event of a physical drive failure, data is reconstructed throughout the disk pool.
Basically, the data that had previously resided on the failed drive is redistributed across all drives in
the pool. Recovery from a failed drive may be up to ten times faster than a rebuild in a traditional
RAID set, and the performance degradation is much less during the rebuild.
In computer storage, multipath 1/0 is a fault-tolerance and performance-enhancement technique
that defines more than one physical path between the CPU in a computer system and its massstorage
devices through the buses, controllers, switches, and bridge devices connecting them.
As an example, a SCSI hard disk drive may connect to two SCSI controllers on the same computer, or
a disk may connect to two Fibre Channel ports. Should one controller, port or switch fail, the
operating system can route the 1/0 through the remaining controller, port or switch transparently
and with no changes visible to the applications.
Incorrect Answers:
A: LUN masking is used to control which LUNs are visible to specific servers. It does not improve the
availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
B: A snapshot is a point in time image of the data on a SAN used for backup or recovery purposes. It
does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
C: A vSAN is local storage on hypervisor servers combined together to create a "virtual SAN". A vSAN
does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing applications.
F: Deduplication is the process of eliminating multiple copies of the same data to save storage space.
It does not improve the availability of the storage networks or the performance of existing
applications.
References:
http://blog.glcomp.com/2013/06/what-is-dynamic-disk-pooling.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multipath_l/0

NO.2 ABC Company must achieve compliance for PCI and SOX. Which of the following would BEST
allow the organization to achieve compliance and ensure security? (Select THREE).
A. Establish a company framework
B. Apply technical controls to meet compliance with the regulation
C. Establish a list of users that must work with each regulation
D. Compartmentalize the network
E. Establish a list of devices that must meet each regulation
F. Centralize management of all devices on the network
Answer: B,D,E

RC0-C02 Study   
Explanation:
Payment card industry (PCI) compliance is adherence to a set of specific security standards that were
developed to protect card information during and after a financial transaction. PCI compliance is
required by all card brands.
There are six main requirements for PCI compliance. The vendor must:
Build and maintain a secure network
Protect cardholder data
Maintain a vulnerability management program
Implement strong access control measures
Regularly monitor and test networks
Maintain an information security policy
To achieve PCI and SOX compliance you should:
Establish a list of devices that must meet each regulation. List all the devices that contain the
sensitive data.
Compartmentalize the network. Compartmentalize the devices that contain the sensitive data to
form a security boundary.
Apply technical controls to meet compliance with the regulation. Secure the data as required.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is not necessary to establish a list of users that must work with each regulation. All users should
be trained to manage sensitive data. However, PCI and SOX compliance is more about the security of
the data on the computers that contain the data.
C: Central management of all devices on the network makes device management easier for
administrators. However, it is not a requirement for PCI and SOX compliance.
E: A company framework is typically related to the structure of employee roles and departments. It is
not a requirement for PCI and SOX compliance.
References:
http://searchcompliance.techtarget.com/definition/PCl-compliance

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Exam Code: RC0-C02
Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Recertification Exam for Continuing Education
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300-207 SITCS
Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions

Exam Number 300-207 SITCS
Associated Certifications CCNP Security
Duration 90 minutes (65 - 75 questions)
Available Languages English

The Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (SITCS) (300-207) exam tests a network security engineer on advanced firewall architecture and configuration with the Cisco next-generation firewall, utilizing access and identity policies. This 90-minute exam consists of 65-75 questions and covers integration of Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) and context-aware firewall components, as well as Web (Cloud) and Email Security solutions. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco Threat Control Solutions (SITCS) course.

Exam Topics
The exam is closed book, and no outside reference materials are allowed. The following topics are general guidelines for the content that is likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines that follow may change at any time without notice.

22% 1.0 Content Security
1.1 Cisco ASA 5500-X NGFW Security Services
1.1.a Describe features and functionality
1.1.b Implement web usage control (URL-filtering, reputation based, file filtering)
1.1.c Implement AVC
1.1.d Implement decryption policies
1.1.e Describe traffic redirection and capture methods

1.2 Cisco Cloud Web Security
1.2.a Describe features and functionality
1.2.b Implement IOS and ASA connectors
1.2.c Implement AnyConnect web security module
1.2.d Describe web usage control
1.2.e Implement AVC
1.2.f Implement anti-malware
1.2.g Describe decryption policies

1.3 Cisco WSA
1.3.a Describe features and functionality
1.3.b Implement data security
1.3.c Implement WSA Identity and Authentication, including
Transparent User Identification
1.3.d Describe web usage control
1.3.e Implement AVC
1.3.f Implement anti-malware
1.3.g Describe decryption policies
1.3.h Describe traffic redirection and capture methods (Explicit Proxy vs. Transparent Proxy)

1.4 Cisco ESA
1.4.a Describe features and functionality
1.4.b Implement email encryption
1.4.c Implement anti-spam policies
1.4.d Implement virus outbreak filter
1.4.e Implement DLP policies
1.4.f Implement anti-malware
1.4.g Implement inbound and outbound mail policies and authentication
1.4.h Describe traffic redirection and capture methods


23% 2.0 Threat Defense Collapse
2.1 Network IPS
2.1.a Implement traffic redirection and capture methods
2.1.b Implement network IPS deployment modes
2.1.c Describe signatures engines
2.1.d Implement event actions & overrides/filters
2.1.e Implement anomaly detection
2.1.f Implement risk ratings
2.1.g Describe IOS IPS

2.2 Configure device hardening per best practices
2.2.a IPS
2.2.b Content Security appliances


16% 3.0 Devices GUIs and Secured CLI Collapse
3.1 Content Security
3.1.a Implement HTTPS and SSH access
3.1.b Describe configuration elements
3.1.c Implement ESA GUI for message tracking


19% 4.0 Troubleshooting, Monitoring and Reporting Tools
4.1 Configure IME and IP logging for IPS

4.2 Content Security
4.2.a Describe reporting functionality
4.2.b Implement the WSA Policy Trace tool
4.2.c Implement the ESA Message Tracking tool
4.2.d Implement the ESA Trace tool
4.2.e Use web interface to verify traffic is being redirected to CWS
4.2.f Use CLI on IOS to verify CWS operations
4.2.g Use CLI on ASA to verify CWS operations
4.2.h Use the PRSM Event Viewer to verify ASA NGFW operations
4.2.i Describe the PRSM Dashboards and Reports

4.3 Monitor Cisco Security IntelliShield
4.3.a Describe at a high level the features of the Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service

8% 5.0 Threat Defense Architectures Collapse
5.1 Design IPS solution
5.1.a Deploy Inline or Promiscuous
5.1.b Deploy as IPS appliance, IPS software or hardware module
or IOS IPS
5.1.c Describe methods of IPS appliance load-balancing
5.1.d Describe the need for Traffic Symmetry
5.1.e Inline modes comparison - inline interface pair, inline VLAN pair, and inline VLAN group
5.1.f Management options

12% 6.0 Content Security Architectures Collapse
6.1 Design Web Security solution
6.1.a Compare ASA NGFW vs. WSA vs. CWS
6.1.b Compare Physical WSA vs. Virtual WSA
6.1.c List available CWS connectors

6.2 Design Email Security solution
6.2.a Compare Physical ESA vs. Virtual ESA
6.2.b Describe Hybrid mode

6.3 Design Application Security solution
6.3.a Describe the need for application visibility and control